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Question A2
What part of the Federal Aviation Regulations govern rocket activity?
A. Part 125
B. Part 95
C. Part 101
D. Part 97

Question A3
What is the maximum launch weight allowable for a rocket which does not require a FAA Certificate of Waiver or Authorization (COA)?
A. 4 ounces (113 grams)
B. 4.4 ounces (125 grams)
C. 1 pound (453 grams)
D. 3.3 pounds (1500 grams)

Question A8
What is the minimum age for user certification? [Note: Excludes NAR Jr. HPR program]
A. 21 years old
B. 18 years old
C. 16 years old
D. 25 years old

Question A10
Which of the following is (are) true of a complex high power rocket per NFPA 1127?
A. The rocket is multi-staged or propelled by a cluster of rocket motors
B. The rocket contains electrical or electronic devices intended for control of the rockets functions, e.g. staging, recovery initiation
C. The rocket uses other than parachute or streamer recovery, e.g. helicopter or glide recovery
D. Both "A" and "B" above

Question A11
A launch site is defined as containing areas for which of the following activities?
A. Launching
B. Recovery
C. Parking
D. All of the above

Question A13
Which of the following statements is always true concerning the definition of a hybrid rocket motor?
A. The fuel component is composed of either paper or plastic
B. The fuel is in a different physical state (solid, liquid, or gaseous) than the oxidizer
C. The oxidizer component is nitrous oxide
D. Both "A" and "C" above.

Question A18
What information does FAA FAR 101.29(a) require you to provide when filing for FAA Launch Authorization?
A. Estimated number of rockets and type of propulsion (liquid or solid), fuel(s) and oxidizer(s)
B. Description of the launcher(s) planned to be used, including any airborne platform(s) and description of recovery system
C. Highest altitude, above ground level, expected to be reached, launch site latitude, longitude, and elevation, and any additional safety procedures that will be followed
D. All of the above

Question A19
Which of the following are operating limitations for Class 2 High Power Rockets per the FAA's FAR 101 Regulations?
A. At any altitude where clouds or obscuring phenomena of more than five-tenths coverage prevails
B. At any altitude where the horizontal visibility is less than five miles
C. Into any cloud
D. All of the above

Question A20
According to NFPA 1127, a High Power Rocket shall only be launched if:
A. It contains any combination of motors having 40,960 Newton-secondsof total impulse or less
B. It contains a recovery system that is designed to return all parts to the ground intact and at a landing speed which the rocket does not present a hazard
C. It utilizes an electronically actuated recovery system as either a primary or backup deployment method if the installed total impulse is greater than 2560 Newton-seconds
D. All of the above

Question A22
According to NFPA 1127, the definition of a High Power Rocket is a rocket vehicle that:
A. Is propelled by one or more High Power Rocket motors
B. Is propelled by a combination of model rocket motors having an installed total impulse of more than 320 Newton-seconds or a combination of model rocket motors having more than a total of 125 grams (4.4 ounces) of propellant weight
C. Weighs more than 1500 grams (53 ounces or 3.3 pounds) with motor(s) installed
D. All of the above

Question B3
What does the "5" in the motor designation H100-5 stand for?
A. It is the ejection charge delay time
B. It is the peak thrust (in kilograms) of the rocket motor
C. It is the rocket motor burn time
D. It is the average thrust of the rocket motor

Question B4
What are the units of measurement for the "100" in the motor designation H100-5?
A. Newton-seconds
B. Newtons
C. Newtons per second
D. feet per second

Question B6
Assuming that each motor has the full allowable impulse, how many "H" motors have the same total impulse as a single "J" motor?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3

Question C2
What is the maximum wind velocity allowable for launch operations?
A. 15 miles per hour
B. 30 miles per hour
C. 25 miles per hour
D. 20 miles per hour

Question C13
What is the minimum safe distance from a high power rocket containing two (2) "K" motors?
A. 100 feet
B. 50 feet
C. 300 feet
D. 500 feet

Question C18
When should igniters installed in rocket motors be checked for continuity?
A. Only in an enclosed shelter
B. Igniters should never be checked for continuity while installed in a rocket motor
C. Only on the launch pad when ready for launch
D. Any time

Question C20
Which of the following adhesives should not be used on rubber (or elastic) shock cord components?
A. White "Elmer's" glue
B. Cyanoacrylate glues (super glue)
C. Aliphatic resin-based (yellow) glues
D. Slow-curing epoxy adhesives

Question C22
Which of the following adhesives is the best choice for motor mount construction using phenolic motor tubes?
A. Aliphatic resin based glues
B. Cyanoacrylate glues (super glue)
C. Slow-curing epoxy adhesives
D. "Hot melt" adhesives

Question C23
The centering rings provided with your high power kit are a loose fit around the phenolic motor tube. Which of the following adhesives is the best choice for a strong joint?
A. Aliphatic resin based glues
B. Cyanoacrylate glues (super glue)
C. Slow-curing epoxy adhesives
D. "Hot melt" adhesives

Question C25
When clustering combinations of black powder and composite motors, which type of rocket motor should be ignited first?
A. Clusters should never mix composite and black powder motors
B. Composite rocket motors should be ignited first
C. Black powder rocket motors should be ignited first
D. It does not matter which motors are ignited first

Question C26
Why should composite motors be ignited first in a mixed composite and black powder cluster?
A. Composite rocket motors are more powerful than black powder motors
B. The exhaust products from black powder motors prevent composite motor ignition
C. Composite motors are more likely to "cato" than black powder motors
D. Composite motors are more difficult and take longer to ignite

Question C29
Petroleum based lubricants should not be used with the oxygen or nitrous oxide systems used in hybrids. Why?
A. They thicken when exposed to oxygen or nitrous oxide
B. There is a risk of spontaneous ignition or explosion
C. The lubricant can promote corrosion of the metal components in the presence oxygen or nitrous oxide
D. They lose their lubricating properties when exposed to oxygen or nitrous oxide

Question C31
The range safety officer says that your model is unsafe to fly. Who has the authority to overturn this ruling:
A. The safety monitor's (RSO) decision cannot be overturned by anyone
B. The Launch Control Officer (LCO)
C. The individual who "checked-in" the model
D. Three certified high power fliers who agree the model is safe

Question C32
Parachute ejection systems that sense barometric pressure for activation need a vent to the outside in their compartment because:
A. This hole vents internal air pressure as the rocket gains altitude to prevent internal air pressure from prematurely separating the model
B. This hole allows excessive ejection charge pressures to vent
C. The hole allows easy verification that the battery is installed
D. The hole is used to sample air pressure outside the rocket's airframe

Question C33
Which of the following individuals has the final authority in permitting a high power rocket to fly?
A. The rocket owner
B. The check-in officer
C. The launch control officer (LCO)
D. The range safety officer (RSO)

Question C35
Parachute ejection systems that sense barometric pressure can malfunction during supersonic flight because:
A. Aerodynamic heating changes the values of electronic components.
B. The outside pressure distribution is not continuous around the model.
C. Static discharges will "zap" sensitive electronic components.
D. Both answers "A" and "B" are correct.

Question C37
Your payload section, with heavy payload, separated from your model immediately after motor burnout. What might be the cause?
A. The center of pressure at burnout was behind the center of gravity for the model
B. The payload shoulder was too loose in the body tube
C. The rocket motor had a failure of its delay system
D. Both "B" and "C" are correct

Question C38
What is the distance around a launcher for a "J" powered model that must be cleared of easy to burn material, assuming the motor isn't "sparky?"
A. 10 feet
B. 30 feet
C. 75 feet
D. 50 feet

Question C40
What is the distance around a launcher to clear of all combustible and burnable materials for a rocket using a single J motor that burns a titanium sponge to emit sparks?
A. 75 feet
B. 50 feet
C. 30 feet
D. 150 feet

Question C41
What is "titanium sponge?"
A. A lightweight material used in nose cones on supersonic rockets
B. An ingredient used in some rocket motors that causes them to eject sparks in the exhaust
C. An effective cleaning tool for high power rocket motor casings
D. A substitute for ejection wadding

Question C47
What equipment is required at launch sites?
A. Fire suppression devices and First aid kits
B. Fire Suppression devices such as fire extinguishers
C. First aid kits
D. Fire suppression devices, First aid kits, and a way of communicating with everyone on the launch site

Question C48
The Range Safety Officer (RSO) is concerned about your High Power Rocket's stability. Which of the following can be applied to determine the model's stability?
A. Fly a sub-scale, model rocket version of the actual model
B. Perform manual calculations to determine the rocket's Center of Pressure (CP) location and verify the prelaunch Center of Gravity (CG) location
C. Provide simulation data showing the rocket's Center of Pressure (CP) location and prelaunch Center of Gravity (CG) locations
D. All of the above

Question C49
Your high-power rocket lands in a power line. Which of the following is true?
A. You can retrieve it if the power line is on a wooden (not metal) pole
B. You can retrieve it if part of it is already on the ground
C. You can retrieve it if you have a non-conductive tool, such as a "hot-stick"
D. You must leave it alone and you must call the power company

Question C50
Your field is 1500 x 1500 feet, and your FAA waiver is 3000 feet AGL. If you use parachutes sized to bring your rocket down at 20 feet per second, what is the maximum wind you can fly in for rockets that fly to the waiver altitude?
A. You can fly at 15 mph, if you have the pads at the upwind edge of the field, tilt into the wind and the rocket flies vertically
B. You are limited only by the HPR maximum wind of 20 miles per hour
C. You can fly in winds up to about 6 miles an hour, if you have the pads at the upwind edge of the field
D. This field can only be used in calm winds for flights to the waiver altitude

Question C52
According to NFPA 1127, which of the following are prohibited activities for participants prepping or launching high power rockets and for spectators in the prepping areas?
A. Consumption of alcohol
B. Use of medication that could affect judgment, movement, or stability
C. Both "A" and "B" above
D. None of the above

Question C55
What is a common safety practice to follow just before hooking up the igniter leads to a rocket?
A. Check the skies to ensure no aircraft are in the area
B. Stand next to the rocket for a photograph
C. Run an additional simulation to ensure the rocket and motor are a safe combination
D. Touch the igniter clips together to test for sparks in case the launch system is still accidentally energized

Question C60
Which sequence below provides the highest level of range safety when launching a rocket utilizing an onboard electronically actuated recovery system?
A. Arm recovery system electronics, install igniter, touch igniter clips together, connect clips to igniter
B. Install igniter, touch igniter clips together, connect clips to igniter, arm recovery system electronics
C. Install igniter, arm recovery system electronics, touch igniter clips together, connect clips to igniter
D. None of the above

Question D6
During boost a rocket powered by a solid rocket motor tends to:
A. Have no change in stability
B. Become unstable
C. Become more stable in flight
D. Become less stable in flight

Question D8
As a rule of thumb, how far should the center of pressure be from the center of gravity?
A. The center of pressure should be 1.0 body tube diameters ahead of the fin leading edge; the center of gravity does not matter
B. The center of pressure should be at least 1.0 body tube diameters ahead of the center of gravity
C. The center of pressure should be at the same location as the center of gravity
D. The center of pressure should be at least 1.0 body tube diameters behind the center of gravity

Question D9
The definition of Positive Stability in regards to a rocket is:
A. Where the center of gravity (CG) is located ahead (forward) of the center of pressure (CP)
B. Where the center of gravity (CG) and the center of pressure (CP) lie at the same locations
C. Where the center of gravity (CG) is located behind (aft) of the center of pressure (CP)
D. None of the above

Question E1
What is the airspeed velocity of an unladen swallow?
A. 1 furlong per fortnight
B. Mach 1
C. c
D. African or European?