NAR HPR Level 2 Certification Practice Exam
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Question A1
Which of the following National Fire Protection Association standards provides a code for high power rocketry?
A. NFPA 1122
B. NFPA 1124
C. NFPA 1125
D. NFPA 1127
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Question A6
What is the maximum total impulse permitted in a high power rocket per NFPA 1127?
A. There is no impulse limit provided the altitude requirements listed in the FAA Certificate of Waiver or Authorization (COA) are not exceeded
B. 20,480 Newton-seconds
C. 81,920 Newton-seconds
D. 40,960 Newton-seconds
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Question A9
Which of the following characteristics does NOT meet the definition of a High Power Rocket Motor?
A. Average thrust greater than 80 Newtons
B. Total impulse is more than 160 Newton-seconds
C. Propellant weight greater than 125 grams
D. The motor uses a "composite" propellant
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Question A11
A launch site is defined as containing areas for which of the following activities?
A. Launching
B. Recovery
C. Parking
D. All of the above
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Question A12
A person shall fly a high power rocket only in compliance with:
A. NFPA 1127
B. Federal Aviation Administration Regulations, Part 101
C. Federal, state, and local laws, rules, regulations, statutes, and ordinances
D. All of the above
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Question A16
Which of the following statements are true concerning the definition of a High Power Rocket Motor?
A. Total impulse is less than 81,920 Newton-seconds
B. The total impulse is more than 160 Newton-seconds
C. The motor must use either fiberglass or metal case materials
D. Both A and B above
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Question A17
Which of the following (hypothetical) rocket motors is NOT a High Power Rocket Motor?
A. An F90 with 40 grams of propellant
B. An H60 with 62 grams of propellant
C. A G35 with 66 grams of propellant
D. All of the above are High Power Rocket Motors
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Question A18
What information does FAA FAR 101.29(a) require you to provide when filing for FAA Launch Authorization?
A. Estimated number of rockets and type of propulsion (liquid or solid), fuel(s) and oxidizer(s)
B. Description of the launcher(s) planned to be used, including any airborne platform(s) and description of recovery system
C. Highest altitude, above ground level, expected to be reached, launch site latitude, longitude, and elevation, and any additional safety procedures that will be followed
D. All of the above
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Question A19
Which of the following are operating limitations for Class 2 High Power Rockets per the FAA's FAR 101 Regulations?
A. At any altitude where clouds or obscuring phenomena of more than five-tenths coverage prevails
B. At any altitude where the horizontal visibility is less than five miles
C. Into any cloud
D. All of the above
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Question A20
According to NFPA 1127, a High Power Rocket shall only be launched if:
A. It contains any combination of motors having 40,960 Newton-secondsof total impulse or less
B. It contains a recovery system that is designed to return all parts to the ground intact and at a landing speed which the rocket does not present a hazard
C. It utilizes an electronically actuated recovery system as either a primary or backup deployment method if the installed total impulse is greater than 2560 Newton-seconds
D. All of the above
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Question B3
What does the "5" in the motor designation H100-5 stand for?
A. It is the peak thrust (in kilograms) of the rocket motor
B. It is the rocket motor burn time
C. It is the ejection charge delay time
D. It is the average thrust of the rocket motor
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Question B4
What are the units of measurement for the "100" in the motor designation H100-5?
A. feet per second
B. Newtons per second
C. Newton-seconds
D. Newtons
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Question B6
Assuming that each motor has the full allowable impulse, how many "H" motors have the same total impulse as a single "J" motor?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3
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Question C2
What is the maximum wind velocity allowable for launch operations?
A. 20 miles per hour
B. 30 miles per hour
C. 25 miles per hour
D. 15 miles per hour
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Question C3
The minimum launch site dimension for your field is 1500 feet. Assuming no public highways or occupied buildings in the area, what is the minimum distance between the launch site boundary and the launcher for a 320 Newton-second motor?
A. 750 feet
B. 100 feet
C. 320 feet
D. The launcher may be located anywhere on the launch site to compensate for wind
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Question C9
A farm owner offers you his farm for a launch site. His house is located in the middle of the farm, which is two (2) miles square. What is the minimum distance allowable for location of a high power launch pad from the owner's house, assuming it is occupied?
A. You cannot launch unless the house is empty
B. 3000 feet
C. 1500 feet
D. 750 feet
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Question C12
What is the minimum safe distance from a high power rocket containing three (3) "H" motors?
A. 50 feet
B. 75 feet
C. 200 feet
D. 100 feet
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Question C13
What is the minimum safe distance from a high power rocket containing two (2) "K" motors?
A. 500 feet
B. 100 feet
C. 300 feet
D. 50 feet
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Question C16
Which of the following is most likely to cause catastrophic failure of a black powder rocket motor?
A. High altitude
B. Electromagnetic fields
C. Vibration
D. Temperature cycling
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Question C20
Which of the following adhesives should not be used on rubber (or elastic) shock cord components?
A. Slow-curing epoxy adhesives
B. White "Elmer's" glue
C. Aliphatic resin-based (yellow) glues
D. Cyanoacrylate glues (super glue)
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Question C21
Which of the following adhesives is most likely to be weakened under humid or wet weather conditions?
A. Slow-curing epoxy adhesives
B. Cyanoacrylate glues (super glue)
C. Aliphatic resin based glues
D. White "Elmer's" glue
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Question C22
Which of the following adhesives is the best choice for motor mount construction using phenolic motor tubes?
A. Cyanoacrylate glues (super glue)
B. Aliphatic resin based glues
C. Slow-curing epoxy adhesives
D. "Hot melt" adhesives
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Question C24
A small hole is typically recommended near the top, but below the nosecone or payload section shoulder, of a high power rocket's booster section. Why?
A. The hole allows easy verification that a parachute is installed
B. The hole vents internal air pressure as the rocket gains altitude to prevent internal air pressure from prematurely separating the model
C. The hole is used to give air pressure readings for on board altimeters prematurely separating the model
D. This hole allows excessive ejection charge pressures to vent to reduce shock cord stress
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Question C26
Why should composite motors be ignited first in a mixed composite and black powder cluster?
A. Composite motors are more difficult and take longer to ignite
B. Composite motors are more likely to "cato" than black powder motors
C. The exhaust products from black powder motors prevent composite motor ignition
D. Composite rocket motors are more powerful than black powder motors
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Question C27
If individual igniters are used for igniting a clustered model's motors, which of the following statements is typically true:
A. The launch control must provide higher voltage to ignite the additional igniters
B. The launch control must provide additional current to ignite the additional igniters
C. The launch control must use a car battery as a power source
D. The launch control must have an audible as well as visual indication of igniter continuity.
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Question C30
Which of the following safety hazards may be associated with hybrid rocket motors?
A. Low temperatures (frostbite)
B. Corrosive materials
C. High pressure gas, low temperatures (frostbite)
D. High pressure gas
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Question C32
Parachute ejection systems that sense barometric pressure for activation need a vent to the outside in their compartment because:
A. This hole vents internal air pressure as the rocket gains altitude to prevent internal air pressure from prematurely separating the model
B. This hole allows excessive ejection charge pressures to vent
C. The hole allows easy verification that the battery is installed
D. The hole is used to sample air pressure outside the rocket's airframe
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Question C33
Which of the following individuals has the final authority in permitting a high power rocket to fly?
A. The range safety officer (RSO)
B. The rocket owner
C. The check-in officer
D. The launch control officer (LCO)
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Question C35
Parachute ejection systems that sense barometric pressure can malfunction during supersonic flight because:
A. Aerodynamic heating changes the values of electronic components.
B. The outside pressure distribution is not continuous around the model.
C. Static discharges will "zap" sensitive electronic components.
D. Both answers "A" and "B" are correct.
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Question C36
Your rocket was returned from its flight with "zipper" damage where the shock cord tore through the model. What is the most likely cause:
A. Parachute ejection occurred too soon after motor burnout
B. Parachute ejection occurred too late after apogee
C. Parachute ejection occurred at apogee on a vertical flight
D. Both "A" and "B"
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Question C42
Consequences of inadequate motor retention can include:
A. The motor being ejected at apogee instead of the parachute, resulting in two falling objects
B. The motor being ejected from a cluster, and flying on its own, under power
C. The motor flying through the rocket, destroying it
D. All of the above
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Question C43
According to NAR studies, the vast majority of unsuccessful flights fail because of:
A. Recovery system failures
B. Rocket motor malfunctions
C. Rockets that are structurally unsound
D. Rocket designs that are unstable
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Question C50
Your field is 1500 x 1500 feet, and your FAA waiver is 3000 feet AGL. If you use parachutes sized to bring your rocket down at 20 feet per second, what is the maximum wind you can fly in for rockets that fly to the waiver altitude?
A. You can fly in winds up to about 6 miles an hour, if you have the pads at the upwind edge of the field
B. You can fly at 15 mph, if you have the pads at the upwind edge of the field, tilt into the wind and the rocket flies vertically
C. This field can only be used in calm winds for flights to the waiver altitude
D. You are limited only by the HPR maximum wind of 20 miles per hour
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Question C55
What is a common safety practice to follow just before hooking up the igniter leads to a rocket?
A. Check the skies to ensure no aircraft are in the area
B. Stand next to the rocket for a photograph
C. Touch the igniter clips together to test for sparks in case the launch system is still accidentally energized
D. Run an additional simulation to ensure the rocket and motor are a safe combination
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Question C57
Twisted wire pairs in rocket wiring are considered good practice because:
A. It improves the routing of wire bundles
B. It reduces strain on solder joints
C. It resists electromagnetic interference from internal and external sources
D. It reduces resistance in wire bundles
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Question C58
Black powder charges for recovery systems can be unintentionally fired by:
A. Electrostatic discharge (static electricity)
B. Electromagnetic fields, e.g. nearby radios
C. Control electronics malfunction
D. All of the above
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Question C60
Which sequence below provides the highest level of range safety when launching a rocket utilizing an onboard electronically actuated recovery system?
A. Arm recovery system electronics, install igniter, touch igniter clips together, connect clips to igniter
B. Install igniter, touch igniter clips together, connect clips to igniter, arm recovery system electronics
C. Install igniter, arm recovery system electronics, touch igniter clips together, connect clips to igniter
D. None of the above
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Question D2
An unstable rocket can be made stable by:
A. Removing sufficient weight from the nosecone
B. Adding sufficient weight to the nosecone
C. Moving the fins sufficiently forward towards the nosecone
D. Making the rocket sufficiently shorter
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Question D4
A rocket's center of pressure can be estimated by:
A. The "Barrowman" method
B. Finding the point where the model balances
C. "Cardboard cutout" method
D. Both "A" and "C" above
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Question D7
Which of the following can cause unstable flight?
A. Weak tubes or couplers that permit airframe bending
B. Misaligned motor mount tube or motor nozzle
C. Inadequate airspeed leaving the launch tower on a breezy day
D. All of the above
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Question E1
What is the airspeed velocity of an unladen swallow?
A. Mach 1
B. African or European?
C. 1 furlong per fortnight
D. c
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