NAR HPR Level 2 Certification Practice Exam
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Question A1
Which of the following National Fire Protection Association standards provides a code for high power rocketry?
A. NFPA 1124
B. NFPA 1127
C. NFPA 1125
D. NFPA 1122
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Question A3
What is the maximum launch weight allowable for a rocket which does not require a FAA Certificate of Waiver or Authorization (COA)?
A. 4 ounces (113 grams)
B. 4.4 ounces (125 grams)
C. 3.3 pounds (1500 grams)
D. 1 pound (453 grams)
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Question A9
Which of the following characteristics does NOT meet the definition of a High Power Rocket Motor?
A. Average thrust greater than 80 Newtons
B. Propellant weight greater than 125 grams
C. The motor uses a "composite" propellant
D. Total impulse is more than 160 Newton-seconds
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Question A12
A person shall fly a high power rocket only in compliance with:
A. NFPA 1127
B. Federal Aviation Administration Regulations, Part 101
C. Federal, state, and local laws, rules, regulations, statutes, and ordinances
D. All of the above
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Question A15
You are attending a launch where the sky is almost completely obscured by clouds at 5,000 feet except for a ~1,000 foot wide "hole" directly over the launch pads. Is it okay to launch a High Power Rocket to 6,000 feet if there’s a Certificate of Waiver or Authorization (COA) granting Class 2 flights up to 8,000 feet?
A. Yes, as long as the High Power Rocket stays within the cloud opening
B. No, the five-tenths coverage and horizontal visibility limitations apply
C. Yes, as long as the RSO approves the launch and the COA is active
D. Both "A" and "B" above.
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Question A16
Which of the following statements are true concerning the definition of a High Power Rocket Motor?
A. Total impulse is less than 81,920 Newton-seconds
B. The total impulse is more than 160 Newton-seconds
C. The motor must use either fiberglass or metal case materials
D. Both A and B above
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Question A17
Which of the following (hypothetical) rocket motors is NOT a High Power Rocket Motor?
A. An F90 with 40 grams of propellant
B. An H60 with 62 grams of propellant
C. A G35 with 66 grams of propellant
D. All of the above are High Power Rocket Motors
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Question A18
What information does FAA FAR 101.29(a) require you to provide when filing for FAA Launch Authorization?
A. Estimated number of rockets and type of propulsion (liquid or solid), fuel(s) and oxidizer(s)
B. Description of the launcher(s) planned to be used, including any airborne platform(s) and description of recovery system
C. Highest altitude, above ground level, expected to be reached, launch site latitude, longitude, and elevation, and any additional safety procedures that will be followed
D. All of the above
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Question A19
Which of the following are operating limitations for Class 2 High Power Rockets per the FAA's FAR 101 Regulations?
A. At any altitude where clouds or obscuring phenomena of more than five-tenths coverage prevails
B. At any altitude where the horizontal visibility is less than five miles
C. Into any cloud
D. All of the above
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Question A22
According to NFPA 1127, the definition of a High Power Rocket is a rocket vehicle that:
A. Is propelled by one or more High Power Rocket motors
B. Is propelled by a combination of model rocket motors having an installed total impulse of more than 320 Newton-seconds or a combination of model rocket motors having more than a total of 125 grams (4.4 ounces) of propellant weight
C. Weighs more than 1500 grams (53 ounces or 3.3 pounds) with motor(s) installed
D. All of the above
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Question B1
What does the "H" in the motor designation H100-5 stand for?
A. It indicates that the motor uses black powder as a propellant
B. It indicates the total power range or impulse range of the rocket motor
C. It indicates the total thrust of the rocket motor
D. It is the first letter in the manufacturer's name
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Question B4
What are the units of measurement for the "100" in the motor designation H100-5?
A. Newtons
B. feet per second
C. Newtons per second
D. Newton-seconds
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Question B9
The manufacturer's test data shows an average thrust of 100 Newtons for 6 seconds for your motor. What impulse class does your motor represent?
A. "K"
B. "I"
C. "J"
D. "H"
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Question C1
What is the maximum launch angle, measured from vertical, for a high power rocket?
A. 10 degrees
B. 15 degrees
C. 20 degrees
D. 25 degrees
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Question C2
What is the maximum wind velocity allowable for launch operations?
A. 25 miles per hour
B. 30 miles per hour
C. 20 miles per hour
D. 15 miles per hour
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Question C18
When should igniters installed in rocket motors be checked for continuity?
A. Only on the launch pad when ready for launch
B. Only in an enclosed shelter
C. Any time
D. Igniters should never be checked for continuity while installed in a rocket motor
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Question C19
Which of the following is the preferred method for attaching fins to a high power rocket?
A. "Wedge" mount
B. All fin mounting methods are all equally strong; it does not matter
C. "Though the wall" mounting
D. Tube surface mounting
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Question C22
Which of the following adhesives is the best choice for motor mount construction using phenolic motor tubes?
A. Aliphatic resin based glues
B. Slow-curing epoxy adhesives
C. "Hot melt" adhesives
D. Cyanoacrylate glues (super glue)
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Question C24
A small hole is typically recommended near the top, but below the nosecone or payload section shoulder, of a high power rocket's booster section. Why?
A. The hole allows easy verification that a parachute is installed
B. The hole vents internal air pressure as the rocket gains altitude to prevent internal air pressure from prematurely separating the model
C. The hole is used to give air pressure readings for on board altimeters prematurely separating the model
D. This hole allows excessive ejection charge pressures to vent to reduce shock cord stress
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Question C27
If individual igniters are used for igniting a clustered model's motors, which of the following statements is typically true:
A. The launch control must provide additional current to ignite the additional igniters
B. The launch control must provide higher voltage to ignite the additional igniters
C. The launch control must have an audible as well as visual indication of igniter continuity.
D. The launch control must use a car battery as a power source
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Question C29
Petroleum based lubricants should not be used with the oxygen or nitrous oxide systems used in hybrids. Why?
A. There is a risk of spontaneous ignition or explosion
B. They thicken when exposed to oxygen or nitrous oxide
C. They lose their lubricating properties when exposed to oxygen or nitrous oxide
D. The lubricant can promote corrosion of the metal components in the presence oxygen or nitrous oxide
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Question C31
The range safety officer says that your model is unsafe to fly. Who has the authority to overturn this ruling:
A. The Launch Control Officer (LCO)
B. The safety monitor's (RSO) decision cannot be overturned by anyone
C. Three certified high power fliers who agree the model is safe
D. The individual who "checked-in" the model
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Question C32
Parachute ejection systems that sense barometric pressure for activation need a vent to the outside in their compartment because:
A. The hole is used to sample air pressure outside the rocket's airframe
B. This hole allows excessive ejection charge pressures to vent
C. This hole vents internal air pressure as the rocket gains altitude to prevent internal air pressure from prematurely separating the model
D. The hole allows easy verification that the battery is installed
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Question C33
Which of the following individuals has the final authority in permitting a high power rocket to fly?
A. The range safety officer (RSO)
B. The rocket owner
C. The launch control officer (LCO)
D. The check-in officer
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Question C34
Which of the following individuals has the ultimate responsibility to ensure that the rocket was built in a safe manner?
A. The launch control officer (LCO)
B. The safety monitor (range safety officer or RSO)
C. The rocket owner/builder
D. All of the above
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Question C36
Your rocket was returned from its flight with "zipper" damage where the shock cord tore through the model. What is the most likely cause:
A. Parachute ejection occurred too soon after motor burnout
B. Parachute ejection occurred too late after apogee
C. Parachute ejection occurred at apogee on a vertical flight
D. Both "A" and "B"
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Question C39
What is the distance around a launcher for a rocket using a 3-motor cluster of J motors that must be cleared of easy to burn material, assuming the motors aren't "sparky?"
A. 50 feet
B. 10 feet
C. 75 feet
D. 30 feet
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Question C41
What is "titanium sponge?"
A. A lightweight material used in nose cones on supersonic rockets
B. An ingredient used in some rocket motors that causes them to eject sparks in the exhaust
C. An effective cleaning tool for high power rocket motor casings
D. A substitute for ejection wadding
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Question C43
According to NAR studies, the vast majority of unsuccessful flights fail because of:
A. Rockets that are structurally unsound
B. Rocket designs that are unstable
C. Recovery system failures
D. Rocket motor malfunctions
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Question C44
The kinetic energy of a descending rocket is a function of:
A. Its mass times the square of its velocity
B. Its mass times its velocity
C. Its velocity
D. Its mass
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Question C45
You have an excellent flying field, except that when the winds are from the northwest at over 10 mph, rockets often drift into neighboring fields where you don't have permission to fly. Your alternatives include:
A. Limit flights to lower altitudes so rockets stay on the field
B. Move the launch pad closer to the NW edge of the field, provided there are no roads or houses within 1500 feet
C. Don't fly on days with problematic winds
D. All of the above
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Question C49
Your high-power rocket lands in a power line. Which of the following is true?
A. You can retrieve it if part of it is already on the ground
B. You must leave it alone and you must call the power company
C. You can retrieve it if the power line is on a wooden (not metal) pole
D. You can retrieve it if you have a non-conductive tool, such as a "hot-stick"
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Question C52
According to NFPA 1127, which of the following are prohibited activities for participants prepping or launching high power rockets and for spectators in the prepping areas?
A. Consumption of alcohol
B. Use of medication that could affect judgment, movement, or stability
C. Both "A" and "B" above
D. None of the above
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Question C56
An electronically actuated recovery system, as either a primary or backup deployment method, is required if the installed total impulse exceeds:
A. 1280 N-sec
B. 2560 N-sec
C. 5120 N-sec
D. 10240 N-sec
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Question C57
Twisted wire pairs in rocket wiring are considered good practice because:
A. It resists electromagnetic interference from internal and external sources
B. It improves the routing of wire bundles
C. It reduces strain on solder joints
D. It reduces resistance in wire bundles
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Question C58
Black powder charges for recovery systems can be unintentionally fired by:
A. Electrostatic discharge (static electricity)
B. Electromagnetic fields, e.g. nearby radios
C. Control electronics malfunction
D. All of the above
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Question C60
Which sequence below provides the highest level of range safety when launching a rocket utilizing an onboard electronically actuated recovery system?
A. Arm recovery system electronics, install igniter, touch igniter clips together, connect clips to igniter
B. Install igniter, touch igniter clips together, connect clips to igniter, arm recovery system electronics
C. Install igniter, arm recovery system electronics, touch igniter clips together, connect clips to igniter
D. None of the above
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Question D5
An unstable rocket can usually be made more stable by:
A. Using a larger, heavier rocket motor
B. Using a shorter nosecone
C. Increasing the size of the aft fins
D. Increasing the rocket diameter
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Question D7
Which of the following can cause unstable flight?
A. Weak tubes or couplers that permit airframe bending
B. Misaligned motor mount tube or motor nozzle
C. Inadequate airspeed leaving the launch tower on a breezy day
D. All of the above
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Question D9
The definition of Positive Stability in regards to a rocket is:
A. Where the center of gravity (CG) is located ahead (forward) of the center of pressure (CP)
B. Where the center of gravity (CG) and the center of pressure (CP) lie at the same locations
C. Where the center of gravity (CG) is located behind (aft) of the center of pressure (CP)
D. None of the above
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Question E1
What is the airspeed velocity of an unladen swallow?
A. 1 furlong per fortnight
B. Mach 1
C. African or European?
D. c
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