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Question A1
Which of the following National Fire Protection Association standards provides a code for high power rocketry?
A. NFPA 1124
B. NFPA 1122
C. NFPA 1125
D. NFPA 1127

Question A2
What part of the Federal Aviation Regulations govern rocket activity?
A. Part 97
B. Part 125
C. Part 95
D. Part 101

Question A12
A person shall fly a high power rocket only in compliance with:
A. NFPA 1127
B. Federal Aviation Administration Regulations, Part 101
C. Federal, state, and local laws, rules, regulations, statutes, and ordinances
D. All of the above

Question A13
Which of the following statements is always true concerning the definition of a hybrid rocket motor?
A. The fuel component is composed of either paper or plastic
B. The fuel is in a different physical state (solid, liquid, or gaseous) than the oxidizer
C. The oxidizer component is nitrous oxide
D. Both "A" and "C" above.

Question A16
Which of the following statements are true concerning the definition of a High Power Rocket Motor?
A. Total impulse is less than 81,920 Newton-seconds
B. The total impulse is more than 160 Newton-seconds
C. The motor must use either fiberglass or metal case materials
D. Both A and B above

Question A17
Which of the following (hypothetical) rocket motors is NOT a High Power Rocket Motor?
A. An F90 with 40 grams of propellant
B. An H60 with 62 grams of propellant
C. A G35 with 66 grams of propellant
D. All of the above are High Power Rocket Motors

Question A18
What information does FAA FAR 101.29(a) require you to provide when filing for FAA Launch Authorization?
A. Estimated number of rockets and type of propulsion (liquid or solid), fuel(s) and oxidizer(s)
B. Description of the launcher(s) planned to be used, including any airborne platform(s) and description of recovery system
C. Highest altitude, above ground level, expected to be reached, launch site latitude, longitude, and elevation, and any additional safety procedures that will be followed
D. All of the above

Question A19
Which of the following are operating limitations for Class 2 High Power Rockets per the FAA's FAR 101 Regulations?
A. At any altitude where clouds or obscuring phenomena of more than five-tenths coverage prevails
B. At any altitude where the horizontal visibility is less than five miles
C. Into any cloud
D. All of the above

Question A20
According to NFPA 1127, a High Power Rocket shall only be launched if:
A. It contains any combination of motors having 40,960 Newton-secondsof total impulse or less
B. It contains a recovery system that is designed to return all parts to the ground intact and at a landing speed which the rocket does not present a hazard
C. It utilizes an electronically actuated recovery system as either a primary or backup deployment method if the installed total impulse is greater than 2560 Newton-seconds
D. All of the above

Question A22
According to NFPA 1127, the definition of a High Power Rocket is a rocket vehicle that:
A. Is propelled by one or more High Power Rocket motors
B. Is propelled by a combination of model rocket motors having an installed total impulse of more than 320 Newton-seconds or a combination of model rocket motors having more than a total of 125 grams (4.4 ounces) of propellant weight
C. Weighs more than 1500 grams (53 ounces or 3.3 pounds) with motor(s) installed
D. All of the above

Question B3
What does the "5" in the motor designation H100-5 stand for?
A. It is the ejection charge delay time
B. It is the peak thrust (in kilograms) of the rocket motor
C. It is the rocket motor burn time
D. It is the average thrust of the rocket motor

Question B4
What are the units of measurement for the "100" in the motor designation H100-5?
A. Newtons
B. Newtons per second
C. Newton-seconds
D. feet per second

Question B5
What is the maximum total impulse for a "J" rocket motor?
A. 320.00 Newton-seconds
B. 640.00 Newton-seconds
C. 1280.00 Newton-seconds
D. 2560.00 Newton-seconds

Question C2
What is the maximum wind velocity allowable for launch operations?
A. 15 miles per hour
B. 30 miles per hour
C. 20 miles per hour
D. 25 miles per hour

Question C10
A farm owner offers you his farm for a launch site. His house is located in the middle of the farm, which is one quarter (1/4) mile by one quarter (1/4) mile square. Assuming you can get an FAA waiver for 2500 feet, can you conduct a high power launch from this farm?
A. D) No
B. B) Yes, but the pads have to be the minimum personnel distance from the edge of the field.
C. A) Yes
D. C) Yes, but the house has to be empty

Question C11
What is the minimum safe distance from a high power rocket containing a single "I" motor?
A. 200 feet
B. 50 feet
C. 75 feet
D. 100 feet

Question C12
What is the minimum safe distance from a high power rocket containing three (3) "H" motors?
A. 50 feet
B. 75 feet
C. 200 feet
D. 100 feet

Question C16
Which of the following is most likely to cause catastrophic failure of a black powder rocket motor?
A. High altitude
B. Vibration
C. Temperature cycling
D. Electromagnetic fields

Question C19
Which of the following is the preferred method for attaching fins to a high power rocket?
A. All fin mounting methods are all equally strong; it does not matter
B. Tube surface mounting
C. "Wedge" mount
D. "Though the wall" mounting

Question C22
Which of the following adhesives is the best choice for motor mount construction using phenolic motor tubes?
A. Cyanoacrylate glues (super glue)
B. Aliphatic resin based glues
C. "Hot melt" adhesives
D. Slow-curing epoxy adhesives

Question C23
The centering rings provided with your high power kit are a loose fit around the phenolic motor tube. Which of the following adhesives is the best choice for a strong joint?
A. Aliphatic resin based glues
B. Cyanoacrylate glues (super glue)
C. Slow-curing epoxy adhesives
D. "Hot melt" adhesives

Question C24
A small hole is typically recommended near the top, but below the nosecone or payload section shoulder, of a high power rocket's booster section. Why?
A. The hole allows easy verification that a parachute is installed
B. The hole is used to give air pressure readings for on board altimeters prematurely separating the model
C. The hole vents internal air pressure as the rocket gains altitude to prevent internal air pressure from prematurely separating the model
D. This hole allows excessive ejection charge pressures to vent to reduce shock cord stress

Question C27
If individual igniters are used for igniting a clustered model's motors, which of the following statements is typically true:
A. The launch control must have an audible as well as visual indication of igniter continuity.
B. The launch control must use a car battery as a power source
C. The launch control must provide additional current to ignite the additional igniters
D. The launch control must provide higher voltage to ignite the additional igniters

Question C29
Petroleum based lubricants should not be used with the oxygen or nitrous oxide systems used in hybrids. Why?
A. There is a risk of spontaneous ignition or explosion
B. They thicken when exposed to oxygen or nitrous oxide
C. They lose their lubricating properties when exposed to oxygen or nitrous oxide
D. The lubricant can promote corrosion of the metal components in the presence oxygen or nitrous oxide

Question C32
Parachute ejection systems that sense barometric pressure for activation need a vent to the outside in their compartment because:
A. The hole is used to sample air pressure outside the rocket's airframe
B. This hole vents internal air pressure as the rocket gains altitude to prevent internal air pressure from prematurely separating the model
C. This hole allows excessive ejection charge pressures to vent
D. The hole allows easy verification that the battery is installed

Question C34
Which of the following individuals has the ultimate responsibility to ensure that the rocket was built in a safe manner?
A. The launch control officer (LCO)
B. The safety monitor (range safety officer or RSO)
C. The rocket owner/builder
D. All of the above

Question C35
Parachute ejection systems that sense barometric pressure can malfunction during supersonic flight because:
A. Aerodynamic heating changes the values of electronic components.
B. The outside pressure distribution is not continuous around the model.
C. Static discharges will "zap" sensitive electronic components.
D. Both answers "A" and "B" are correct.

Question C36
Your rocket was returned from its flight with "zipper" damage where the shock cord tore through the model. What is the most likely cause:
A. Parachute ejection occurred too soon after motor burnout
B. Parachute ejection occurred too late after apogee
C. Parachute ejection occurred at apogee on a vertical flight
D. Both "A" and "B"

Question C37
Your payload section, with heavy payload, separated from your model immediately after motor burnout. What might be the cause?
A. The center of pressure at burnout was behind the center of gravity for the model
B. The payload shoulder was too loose in the body tube
C. The rocket motor had a failure of its delay system
D. Both "B" and "C" are correct

Question C38
What is the distance around a launcher for a "J" powered model that must be cleared of easy to burn material, assuming the motor isn't "sparky?"
A. 50 feet
B. 10 feet
C. 75 feet
D. 30 feet

Question C41
What is "titanium sponge?"
A. A substitute for ejection wadding
B. An ingredient used in some rocket motors that causes them to eject sparks in the exhaust
C. An effective cleaning tool for high power rocket motor casings
D. A lightweight material used in nose cones on supersonic rockets

Question C43
According to NAR studies, the vast majority of unsuccessful flights fail because of:
A. Rocket motor malfunctions
B. Rocket designs that are unstable
C. Rockets that are structurally unsound
D. Recovery system failures

Question C44
The kinetic energy of a descending rocket is a function of:
A. Its mass times the square of its velocity
B. Its mass times its velocity
C. Its mass
D. Its velocity

Question C47
What equipment is required at launch sites?
A. Fire Suppression devices such as fire extinguishers
B. Fire suppression devices and First aid kits
C. First aid kits
D. Fire suppression devices, First aid kits, and a way of communicating with everyone on the launch site

Question C50
Your field is 1500 x 1500 feet, and your FAA waiver is 3000 feet AGL. If you use parachutes sized to bring your rocket down at 20 feet per second, what is the maximum wind you can fly in for rockets that fly to the waiver altitude?
A. You can fly at 15 mph, if you have the pads at the upwind edge of the field, tilt into the wind and the rocket flies vertically
B. You are limited only by the HPR maximum wind of 20 miles per hour
C. This field can only be used in calm winds for flights to the waiver altitude
D. You can fly in winds up to about 6 miles an hour, if you have the pads at the upwind edge of the field

Question C53
According to NFPA 1127, High Power Rocket motors, motor reloading kits, and pyrotechnic modules shall be stored at least __________ away from smoking, open flames, and other sources of heat.
A. 10 feet
B. 25 feet
C. 50 feet
D. 75 feet

Question C58
Black powder charges for recovery systems can be unintentionally fired by:
A. Electrostatic discharge (static electricity)
B. Electromagnetic fields, e.g. nearby radios
C. Control electronics malfunction
D. All of the above

Question D4
A rocket's center of pressure can be estimated by:
A. The "Barrowman" method
B. Finding the point where the model balances
C. "Cardboard cutout" method
D. Both "A" and "C" above

Question D7
Which of the following can cause unstable flight?
A. Weak tubes or couplers that permit airframe bending
B. Misaligned motor mount tube or motor nozzle
C. Inadequate airspeed leaving the launch tower on a breezy day
D. All of the above

Question D9
The definition of Positive Stability in regards to a rocket is:
A. Where the center of gravity (CG) is located ahead (forward) of the center of pressure (CP)
B. Where the center of gravity (CG) and the center of pressure (CP) lie at the same locations
C. Where the center of gravity (CG) is located behind (aft) of the center of pressure (CP)
D. None of the above

Question E1
What is the airspeed velocity of an unladen swallow?
A. 1 furlong per fortnight
B. Mach 1
C. c
D. African or European?